In the Youtube video on questions, a distinction is drawn between cases where you can (subject verb inversion) and cannot see the auxiliary (does).
But "Prices will fall" is an exception, since there is only one verb in the future tense. Even so it is listed as having an auxiliary.
What about a simple example like "It is good." Again, even though there is only one verb, therefore no auxiliary, the question would involve subject verb inversion.
Please could you help me understand this classification?
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sunny1 2
Hello,
In the Youtube video on questions, a distinction is drawn between cases where you can (subject verb inversion) and cannot see the auxiliary (does).
But "Prices will fall" is an exception, since there is only one verb in the future tense. Even so it is listed as having an auxiliary.
What about a simple example like "It is good." Again, even though there is only one verb, therefore no auxiliary, the question would involve subject verb inversion.
Please could you help me understand this classification?
Thanks.
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