Questions

[sunny1]

Hello,

In the Youtube video on questions, a distinction is drawn between cases where you can (subject verb inversion) and cannot see the auxiliary (does).

But "Prices will fall" is an exception, since there is only one verb in the future tense. Even so it is listed as having an auxiliary.

What about a simple example like "It is good." Again, even though there is only one verb, therefore no auxiliary, the question would involve subject verb inversion.

Please could you help me understand this classification?

Thanks.

[Minoo]

Hello Sunny (not sure that's your actual name?)

The distinction is made between 'Can we see the auxiliary verb, i.e. the verb that I need to formulate a question, in the affirmative sentence or not. Compare:

Prices will fall.  (We can see 'will'.)
It is good. (We can see 'is'.)
He lives / lived here. (We cannot see 'does' or 'did'.)
They know it. (We cannot see 'do'.)

 

 

[sunny1]

So just to make sure, it is only the verb to be and modal verbs where there is inversion, and for all other verbs the do/does construction is used? Many thanks.

[Minoo]

In Present & Past Perfect tenses, you can also see the auxiliary:

I have / had done ....

He has / had been doing ...

[sunny1]

Thanks Minoo. And in those cases is there a clear rule?

Is there a difference between have as a main verb and have as an auxiliary?

Presumably inversion only where have is an auxiliary. E.g.:

Have you any wool?

Do you have any wool? (Probably most natural, right?)

Have you got any wool?

...I have found the answer in the lessons. Thanks!

Edited September 2, 2018 by sunny1
Found answer in lessons